Kerala PSC Secretary Local Self Government Institutions (Local Self Question Paper 155/2024

1. സങ്കീർണ്ണ മരീചികയായ ഫാറ്റ മോർഗനയെ പരിഗണിക്കുമ്പോൾ താഴെപ്പറയുന്നവയിൽ ഏതാണ് ശരി?

1. A) (i) മാത്രം
2. B) (ii) മാത്രം
3. C) (i) ഉം (ii) ഉം
4. D) (i) ഉം അല്ല (ii) ഉം അല്ല

2. താഴെപ്പറയുന്ന ലിസ്റ്റ് A (യുഎൻഎയുടെ ഏജൻസികൾ) ലിസ്റ്റ് B (ആസ്ഥാനം) യുമായി പൊരുത്തപ്പെടുത്തുക :

1. A) (i)-(3) (ii)-(1) (iii)-(2) (iv)-(4)
2. B) (i)-(2) (ii)-(1) (iii)-(4) (iv)-(3)
3. C) (i)-(3) (ii)-(1) (iii)-(4) (iv)-(2)
4. D) (i)-(2) (ii)-(3) (iii)-(1) (iv)-(4)

3. മനുഷ്യാവകാശങ്ങളും മനുഷ്യരാശിയുടെ അന്തസ്സും സംരക്ഷിക്കുന്നതിനുള്ള അന്താരാഷ്ട്ര വർഷങ്ങൾ പരിഗണിക്കുമ്പോൾ ശ്രേണികളിൽ ഏതാണ് ശരിയല്ലാത്തത്?

1. A) ആഫ്രിക്ക വർഷം : 1965
2. B) അന്താരാഷ്ട്ര മനുഷ്യാവകാശ വർഷം : 1968
3. C) അന്താരാഷ്ട്ര വർണ്ണവിവേചന വിരുദ്ധ വർഷം : 1978
4. D) സ്ത്രീകൾക്കുവേണ്ടി അന്താരാഷ്ട്ര വർഷം : 1975

4. ഇന്ത്യയുടെ സ്വാതന്ത്ര്യ സമര കാലത്ത് ഇന്ത്യൻ വിപ്ലവകാരികളുടെ താഴെപ്പറയുന്ന സംഭവങ്ങൾ/പ്രവർത്തനങ്ങൾ കാലക്രമത്തിൽ ക്രമീകരിക്കുക :

1. A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
2. B) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
3. C) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
4. D) (i), (iii), (ii), (iv)

5. Which of the following works is considered by MGS Narayanan as the ‘Unclassified encyclopedia’ of Kerala history?

1. A) Malabar Manual of William Logan
2. B) History of Kerala (4 Vols) by K.P. Padmanabha Menon
3. C) A Survey of Kerala History by A. Sreedhara Menon
4. D) Tuhfathul Mujahidhin of Sheikh Zainudhin Maqdum

6. Which among the following statements is not correct when considering Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, the prominent Bengali literary figure?

1. A) Anandmath, Devi Choutharani and Sitaram are the trilogy of Bankim Chandra
2. B) Bankim Chandra was called the ‘Sir Walter Scott of Bengal’
3. C) R.W. Fraser considered Bankim Chandra the first great creative genius of modern India
4. D) Bankim Chandra was the moving spirit behind the Student’s Literary and Scientific Society in Bengal

7. Identify the country where the Maori, an Indigenous community anointed Nga Wai Hono i te Po, a twenty-seventh-year-old queen as their new monarch.

1. A) Australia
2. B) Indonesia
3. C) New Zealand
4. D) Papua New Guinea

8. Which of the following sequences is not correct when considering the comments or quotations of the leaders during the French Revolution?

1. A) “Oh! Liberty, what crimes are committed in thy name” : Madam Rolland
2. B) “A mad dog! That I may be! but elect me and despotism and privilege will die of my bite” : Comte De Mirabeau
3. C) “Terror is only justice, more inexorable and therefore virtue’s true child” : Maximilien Robespierre
4. D) “Not only France but we can make a heaven of the entire world on the principles of Rousseau” : Jean-Paul Marat

9. Which statement is correct when considering the German trade in Kerala?

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Both (i) and (ii)
4. D) Neither (i) nor (ii)

10. Which Indian freedom fighters wrote the biographies of Italian political leaders like Joseph Mazzini and Guiseppe Garibaldi in Urdu?

1. A) Lala Lajpat Rai
2. B) Bala Gangadar Tilak
3. C) M.A. Anzari
4. D) Moulana Abdul Kalam Azad

11. Chronologically arrange the birth year of the following social reformers of Kerala :

1. A) (ii), (iii), (i), (iv)
2. B) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
3. C) (i), (iv), (iii), (ii)
4. D) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

12. Which of the following statements is/are correct when considering Swathi Thirunal, the Maharaja of Travancore :

1. A) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
2. B) Only (ii) and (iii)
3. C) Only (i) and (iii)
4. D) All (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct

13. Which of the following feedback mechanisms is most likely to accelerate global warming?

1. A) Increased plant growth due to higher CO₂ levels
2. B) Higher cloud cover reflecting sunlight away from the Earth
3. C) Melting polar ice reducing the Earth’s albedo
4. D) Increased absorption of CO₂ by the oceans

14. Which type of pollution is most likely to cause eutrophication in aquatic ecosystems?

1. A) Plastic pollution
2. B) Thermal pollution
3. C) Nutrient pollution from nitrogen and phosphorus
4. D) Noise pollution from shipping activities

15. What is the primary driving force behind the formation of ocean currents?

1. A) Gravitational pull of the moon
2. B) Tectonic plate movements
3. C) Wind patterns and the Earth’s rotation
4. D) Heat transfer from underwater volcanic activity

16. Which of the following is a key function of a GIS?

1. A) Creating 3D animations for urban planning
2. B) Capturing, storing, analyzing and displaying spatial or geographic data
3. C) Conducting field surveys for data collection
4. D) Predicting future weather patterns

17. What geological process is responsible for the formation of the Himalayan Mountains?

1. A) Erosion caused by glaciers
2. B) Subduction of the Pacific Plate beneath the Eurasian Plate
3. C) Collision between the Indian Plate and the Eurasian Plate
4. D) Volcanic activity along a mid-ocean ridge

18. Which river system in India is characterized by a unique phenomenon known as “river piracy”, where one river captures the flow of another?

1. A) The Cauvery River system
2. B) The Narmada River system
3. C) The Godavari River system
4. D) The Brahmaputra River system

19. Which ecological concept describes the interaction between the Nilgiri Tahr and its habitat in the Western Ghats, where its grazing habits influence the composition of plant species and overall ecosystem dynamics?

1. A) Trophic cascade
2. B) Keystone species
3. C) Ecological niche
4. D) Habitat fragmentation

20. Which alternative energy source has been most prominently promoted in Kerala for both electricity generation and reducing carbon emissions?

1. A) Wind energy
2. B) Solar energy
3. C) Biomass energy
4. D) Geothermal energy

21. In the context of Kerala’s Physiographic divisions, which of the following statements accurately describes the Midlands region?

1. A) It is primarily characterized by high-altitude mountain ranges and steep slopes
2. B) It consists of undulating terrain with a mix of valleys and low hills, supporting diverse agricultural practices
3. C) It is dominated by coastal wetlands and marshy lands, crucial for biodiversity
4. D) It features a flat landscape with extensive paddy fields and is located near the Arabian Sea

22. Which of the following phenomena contributes to the orographic effect that significantly impacts the rainfall distribution in Kerala, particularly in the Western Ghats region?

1. A) The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
2. B) The El Niño Southern Oscillation (ENSO)
3. C) The blocking of moisture-laden winds by mountain ranges
4. D) The shift in trade winds

23. In 2024, India successfully launched a mission to the Moon as part of its ongoing space exploration efforts. What is the name of this mission?

1. A) Chandrayaan-2
2. B) Gaganyaan
3. C) Aditya-L1
4. D) Chandrayaan-3

24. Which initiative was launched by the Government of India in 2024 to promote electric vehicles and reduce pollution in urban areas?

1. A) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
2. B) FAME India Scheme Phase II
3. C) National Electric Mobility Mission Plan
4. D) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation

25. Fast Track Courts in India established based on :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above

26. In the Constituent Assembly debates, “I hold that these village republics have been the ruination of India”. Who made this comment?

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above

27. The Legal Advisor of the State Government is known as :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above

28. Arrange the following Committees in a Chronological order :

1. A) (i), (ii), (iii)
2. B) (iii), (ii), (i)
3. C) (iii), (i), (ii)
4. D) (i), (iii), (ii)

29. Indira Gandhi appointed Sarkaria Commission. Who was its Chairman?

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above

30. Protection of Children from Sexual Offenses Act, 2012 came into existence based on :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

31. In which Case, the Supreme Court reversed, by a narrow majority, its own earlier decisions upholding the power of Parliament to amend all Parts of the Constitution including Part III relating to Fundamental Rights :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

32. Who were the first Speaker and the Deputy Speaker in the Legislative Assembly of Kerala?

1. A) Only (i) and (iii)
2. B) Only (ii) and (iii)
3. C) Only (iii) and (iv)
4. D) Only (ii) and (iv)

33. Which of the following statements are correct according to Article 326?

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (i) and (ii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

34. Fundamental Rights have a reasonable restrictions permitted on freedom of speech and expression in the interest of the “Sovereignty and integrity of India” mentioned in :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

35. The Judgement in the L. Chandra Kumar Case (1997) established :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

36. A prerogative Writ of a superior court to call for the records of an inferior court or a body acting in Judicial or quasi – Judicial capacity is :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) All of the above

37. Find out the correct statements regarding Article 315 of the Indian Constitution :

1. A) Only (i) and (ii)
2. B) Only (ii) and (iii)
3. C) Only (iii) and (i)
4. D) All of the above ((i) (ii) and (iii))

38. The 73rd Amendment Acts added :

1. A) Only (i) and (ii)
2. B) Only (ii) and (iii)
3. C) Only (i) and (iii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

39. Article 350B provides :

1. A) Only (i) and (ii)
2. B) Only (ii) and (iii)
3. C) Only (i) and (iii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

40. In October 4, 2024, The Supreme Court finds that, caste segregation exists in Indian Jail, which violate the Article 23 of the Indian Constitution, they are :

1. A) Only (i) and (ii)
2. B) Only (ii) and (iii)
3. C) Only (i) and (iii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

41. The 104th Amendment of the Indian Constitution introduced :

1. A) Only (i) and (iii)
2. B) Only (i) and (ii)
3. C) Only (iii) and (ii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

42. Which of the following statements are correct in connection with President of India?

1. A) Only (i) and (iii)
2. B) Only (ii) and (iii)
3. C) Only (i) and (ii)
4. D) All of the above ((i), (ii) and (iii))

43. Find out the Chairman of 16th Finance Commission of India :

1. A) Only (i)
2. B) Only (ii)
3. C) Only (iii)
4. D) Only (ii) and (iii)

44. Which of the following is the least infective material for the spread of HIV?

1. A) Blood
2. B) Semen
3. C) Breast Milk
4. D) Saliva

45. The global campaign may measurement month is related to which disease?

1. A) Hypertension
2. B) Diabetes
3. C) Obesity
4. D) All the above

46. Which is not a rich source of Vitamin D?

1. A) Sunlight
2. B) Fatty fish
3. C) Egg yolks
4. D) Finger millet

47. Who are the beneficiaries of the Arogyakiranam programme of Government of Kerala?

1. A) Children aged 0 to 18 years
2. B) Women aged 15 to 45
3. C) Individuals above the age of 60
4. D) Visually challenged people

48. Which among the following has the highest blood flow in ml/100 g of tissue?

1. A) Kidney
2. B) Liver
3. C) Brain
4. D) Heart

49. What does PHEIC stands for?

1. A) Population Health and Environmental Impact Committee
2. B) Public Health Evaluation and Incident Control
3. C) Preventive Health and Emergency Information Center
4. D) Public Health Emergency of International Concern

50. Which group represents zoonotic diseases?

1. A) Zika, COVID-19, Cholera, Japanese Encephalitis
2. B) Plague, Nipah, Rabies, Monkeypox
3. C) Kala–azar, Typhoid, Leptospirosis, Plague
4. D) HIV, Rabies, Leptospirosis, Poliomyelitis

51. An integrated, unifying approach that aims to sustainably balance and optimize the health of people, animals and ecosystems is known as :

1. A) Holistic approach
2. B) Sustainable Development Approach
3. C) One Health Approach
4. D) Transdisciplinary Approach

52. What is the name of the emergency response for the prevention and management of violence against healthcare workers when patients or hospital visitors become aggressive recently implemented in Kerala?

1. A) Code Grey Protocol
2. B) Code Blue Protocol
3. C) Code Red Protocol
4. D) Code Orange Protocol

53. Which is the most recently completed National Family Health Survey (NFHS)?

1. A) NFHS – 4
2. B) NFHS – 5
3. C) NFHS – 6
4. D) NFHS – 7

54. What is the acceptable level of fluoride in drinking water as per the Bureau of Indian Standards’ specification?

1. A) 1 mg/L
2. B) 2 mg/L
3. C) 3 mg/L
4. D) 4 mg/L

55. The blowing of the air through the room when the doors and windows are open is called :

1. A) Perflation
2. B) Ventilation
3. C) Deflation
4. D) Aspiration

56. Choose the correct theme for the world environmental day 2024 :

1. A) Our Solutions to plastic pollution
2. B) Our Planet, Our Health
3. C) Our Land, Our Future
4. D) My health, My right

57. In the case of photoelectric effect, increasing the frequency of incident light on a metal results in :

1. A) Only (i) is correct
2. B) Only (ii) is correct
3. C) Both (i) and (iii) are correct
4. D) Both (i) and (iv) are correct

58. Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the velocity of sound in air :

1. A) Both (i) and (iii) are correct
2. B) Both (i) and (iv) are correct
3. C) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
4. D) (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct

59. The working principle of a hydraulic lift, a device used to lift heavy objects, is based on :

1. A) Archimedes Principle
2. B) Bernoulli’s Equation
3. C) Pascal’s law
4. D) Buoyancy

60. Which of the following statements is not true in the case of gravitational force?

1. A) It is the strongest force in nature
2. B) It is proportional to the product of the masses of the objects
3. C) It is always attractive
4. D) It obeys superposition principle

61. Choose the correct combination from the table :

1. A) (i) – (1); (ii) – (2); (iii) – (3)
2. B) (i) – (3); (ii) – (2); (iii) – (1)
3. C) (i) – (2); (ii) – (3), (iii) – (1)
4. D) (i) – (2); (ii) – (1), (iii) – (3)

62. What is one of the objectives of ISRO’s ADITYA – L1 mission?

1. A) To study gravitational waves from the Sun
2. B) To study dynamics of Earth’s atmosphere
3. C) To study inner part of the Sun
4. D) To study dynamics of solar atmosphere

63. India’s first supercapacitor production plant is located at :

1. A) Bengaluru, Karnataka
2. B) Kanpur, Uttar Pradesh
3. C) Kannur, Kerala
4. D) Noida, Uttar Pradesh

64. Choose the correct statement of Aufbau principle.

1. A) In the ground state of an atom, electrons are fed into the various orbitals in the increasing order their energies
2. B) Electron pairing do not takes place until all the orbitals of the set contain one electron each
3. C) No two electrons in an atom can have all the four quantum numbers same.
4. D) The unpaired electrons in the orbitals of the set have parallel spins

65. The element with highest electronegativity is :

1. A) Chlorine
2. B) Oxygen
3. C) Flourine
4. D) Bromine

66. According to Charle’s law :

1. A) Volume is indirectly proportional to temperature
2. B) Volume is directly proportional to temperature
3. C) Volume is directly proportional to pressure
4. D) Volume is indirectly proportional to pressure

67. The pH of 2N HCl is :

1. A) Greater than 7
2. B) Less than 7
3. C) Equal to zero
4. D) Cannot be predicted

68. Aqua regia is a mixture of :

1. A) concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid in a ratio of 1 : 3 by volume
2. B) concentrated sulphuric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid in a ratio of 3 : 1 by volume
3. C) concentrated nitric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid in a ratio of 3 : 1 by volume
4. D) concentrated nitric acid and concentrated hydrochloric acid in a ratio of 1 : 3 by volume

69. Regarding green chemistry which of the following statements are correct :

1. A) Eliminate the use or generation of hazardous substances
2. B) Minimization of waste in the manufacture of chemicals and allied products
3. C) Applies innovative scientific solutions to real-world environmental problems
4. D) All the above statements are correct

70. What is one of the main reasons for the increasing demand for hydrogen as a sustainable energy resource?

1. A) It is the cheapest energy source available
2. B) It can be produced from renewable sources, reducing reliance on fossil fuels
3. C) It has no energy content and is used solely for industrial applications
4. D) It is primarily used in batteries for electric vehicles

71. A bag contain 50p, 25p and 10p coins in the ratio 5 : 9 : 4, amounting to Rs. 206. Find the number of 10p coins.

1. A) 200
2. B) 40
3. C) 160
4. D) 360

72. Arun can do a piece of work in 80 days. He works at it for 10 days and then Anil alone finishes the remaining work in 42 days. In how much time will Arun and Anil working together, finish the work?

1. A) 30
2. B) 48
3. C) 42
4. D) 60

73. The average of five consecutive odd numbers is 61. What is the difference between highest and lowest numbers?

1. A) 57
2. B) 65
3. C) 8
4. D) 6

74. Which of the following inter changes of signs would make the given equation correct?

1. A) − and ×
2. B) + and ÷
3. C) + and ×
4. D) + and −

75. Identify the number that does not belong to the following series.

1. A) 14
2. B) 62
3. C) 126
4. D) 250

76. What was the day of the week on 4th June 2002?

1. A) Sunday
2. B) Monday
3. C) Tuesday
4. D) Wednesday

77. (25√5)ˣ = (∛5)ˣ⁺¹, what does x equal?

1. A) 1/5
2. B) 2/13
3. C) 2/15
4. D) 5/3

78. Suppose that in a particular codding LION is written as MNHK. Find out how COW will be written in the same?

1. A) ANB
2. B) VNB
3. C) BNV
4. D) NVB

79. A family consists of 6 members A, B, C, D, E, F such that B is the son of C, but C is not mother of B, A and C are husband and wife. E is the brother of C. D is the daughter of A. F is the brother of A. Who is the brother in law of C?

1. A) B
2. B) D
3. C) E
4. D) F

80. 25% of 24 + 25% of 32 – 14% of 350 = ?

1. A) –35
2. B) 35
3. C) –30
4. D) 30

81. Neither food nor water ——— to be found there.

1. A) (i)
2. B) (iii)
3. C) (ii)
4. D) (iv)

82. Locate the synonym of sesquipedalian from the following :

1. A) (i)
2. B) (iii)
3. C) (ii)
4. D) (iv)

83. Antonym of clockwise is :

1. A) (iv)
2. B) (i)
3. C) (iii)
4. D) (ii)

84. Identify the correct spelling?

1. A) (iv)
2. B) (ii)
3. C) (iii)
4. D) (i)

85. Identify the meaning of the italicized words.

1. A) (iii)
2. B) (i)
3. C) (ii)
4. D) (iv)

86. Add proper question tag from the following options.

1. A) (iii)
2. B) (i)
3. C) (iv)
4. D) (ii)

87. Convert the following statement into indirect speech.

1. A) (iv)
2. B) (i)
3. C) (ii)
4. D) (iii)

88. Choose the correct preposition from the following.

1. A) (i)
2. B) (ii)
3. C) (iv)
4. D) (iii)

89. I speak the truth. I am not afraid of it.

1. A) (iv)
2. B) (ii)
3. C) (iii)
4. D) (i)

90. Time we live ought not to be computed by number of years, but by use that has been made of them. Insert articles where necessary :

1. A) (i)
2. B) (iii)
3. C) (ii)
4. D) (iv)

91. ശരിയായ പദം തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക :

1. A) യാദൃച്ഛികം
2. B) യാദൃശ്ചികം
3. C) യാദിർശ്ചികം
4. D) യാദൃച്ഛീകം

92. തെറ്റായ വാക്യം തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക :

1. A) ഐകകണ്ഠ്യേനയാണ് തിരഞ്ഞെടുത്തത്
2. B) തിരഞ്ഞെടുപ്പ് ഏകകണ്ഠമായിരുന്നു
3. C) ഐക്യകണ്ഠേനയായിരുന്നു തിരഞ്ഞെടുപ്പ്
4. D) ഏകകണ്ഠമായാണ് തിരഞ്ഞെടുത്തത്

93. താഴെപ്പറയുന്നവയിൽ ശരിയായവ തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക :

1. A) (i), (iii) മാത്രം
2. B) (i), (ii) മാത്രം
3. C) (iii), (iv) മാത്രം
4. D) (i) മാത്രം

94. നഖശിഖാന്തം എന്ന ശൈലിയുടെ അർത്ഥമെന്ത്?

1. A) അടിമുതൽ മുടിവരെ
2. B) ആജീവനാന്തം
3. C) പ്രതികാരബുദ്ധിയോടെ
4. D) പല്ലും നഖവുമുപയോഗിച്ച്

95. To eat one’s own words എന്ന പ്രയോഗത്തിന്റെ അർത്ഥം :

1. A) ദാരിദ്ര്യം പ്രസംഗിക്കുക
2. B) സ്വന്തംകാര്യം മാത്രം പറയുക
3. C) പറഞ്ഞത് പിൻവലിക്കുക
4. D) അമിതമായി സംസാരിക്കുക

96. കണ്ണ് എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ പര്യായമല്ലാത്ത പദം തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക :

1. A) നയനം
2. B) ലോചനം
3. C) മുകുരം
4. D) ഈക്ഷണം

97. ശരിയായി പിരിച്ചെഴുതിയ പദമേത്?

1. A) തിരുമുൽക്കാഴ്ച = തിരുമുൻ + കാഴ്ച
2. B) എണ്ണൂറ് = എൾ + നൂറ്
3. C) വിദ്യുച്ഛക്തി = വിദ്യുത്ത് + ശക്തി
4. D) ചെയ്തവൻ = ചെയ്ത + വൻ

98. സമാനപദങ്ങൾ മാത്രം അടങ്ങിയ ഗണം തിരഞ്ഞെടുക്കുക :

1. A) മരം, തരു, ദ്രുമം, ഉരഗം
2. B) കാട്, കാനം, കാനനം, കാന്താരം
3. C) കാമദേവൻ, മദനൻ, മാരൻ, ഹരൻ
4. D) ആന, കരി, ഇഭം, കളഭം

99. ആസ്തികൻ എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ വിപരീതം ഏത്?

1. A) അസ്വസ്ഥൻ
2. B) നാസ്തികൻ
3. C) അനായാസൻ
4. D) വ്യസ്തികൻ

100. ജാമാതാവ് എന്ന പദത്തിന്റെ സ്ത്രീലിംഗരൂപം :

1. A) ജനയിത്രി
2. B) ജനനി
3. C) കർമ്മിണി
4. D) സ്നുഷ